I’m reading a commentary on Psalms and in the section on the authorship of the Psalms, the writer has this to say:
A major argument that influences Christians in assuming David wrote the Psalms is the impression that Jesus refers to them as David’s. . . . I take it that Jesus is actually speaking conventionally, as when he speaks as if the sun goes round the earth, or refers to the mustard seed being the smallest of seeds, or takes up the traditional story of the rich man and the poor man in his parables about Dives and Lazarus. In such cases he is not pronouncing on questions of cosmology, botany, eschatology, or authorship, but taking up the way people speak abot these matters in his culture and making his point by means of these ways of speaking. And in each case his argument does not depend on his adoption of this conventional way of speaking; it works without that.
Are we OK with this?